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Date: Tue, 25 Sep 2007 14:20:52 -0700
From: "David Gillett" <gillettdavid@...a.edu>
To: "'Gadi Evron'" <ge@...uxbox.org>,
	"'Thor (Hammer of God)'" <thor@...merofgod.com>
Cc: <bugtraq@...urityfocus.com>,
	"'Chad Perrin'" <perrin@...theon.com>,
	"'Crispin Cowan'" <crispin@...ell.com>, <Casper.Dik@....COM>,
	"'pdp (architect)'" <pdp.gnucitizen@...glemail.com>,
	<full-disclosure@...ts.grok.org.uk>,
	"'Lamont Granquist'" <lamont@...iptkiddie.org>,
	"'Roland Kuhn'" <rkuhn@....physik.tu-muenchen.de>
Subject: RE: defining 0day

> What do you, as professional, believe 0day should mean, 
> regardless of previous definitions?

  I think there is some slight residual usefulness to designating
vulnerabilities whose first public disclosure results from
discovery/analysis of an active exploit already "in the wild".  ("0 days"
thus being the elapsed time from public disclosure of the vulnerability to
appearance of a live threat exploiting it, a characteristic which an unknown
vulnerability may only aspire to, and a patched one may never live down.)

David Gillett




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